EMT Mock Written Exam EMT Practice Written Exam Try the following exam. After you've completed it use the link at the end of the test to access the answer key. Which of the following portions of the spine have 5 vertebrae: a. Cervical and thoracic b.

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Lumbar and sacral c. Lumbar and coccyx d. Thoracic and coccyx 2. The minimum compression rate for child CPR is: a. The purpose of the amniotic sac is: a. Protect and nourish the fetus b.

Protect and cushion the fetus from impacts c. Protect and oxygenate the fetus d. None of the above 4. You have been called to the local high school for an injured football player.

Your 14-year-old patient is complaining of LUQ pain and is guarding the injured site. You suspect: a. Liver damage b. Spleen injury c. Appendicitis d. Heat stroke 5. Your 88-year-old patient is complaining of dizziness, headache, and tingling in her right extremities.

She is slurring her speech. You suspect: a. Intoxication b. You have been called to the local swimming pool on a hot August day. A bystander states that your patient, who is still in the water, was fooling around on the diving board and slipped. You should first: a.

Remove your patient from the water immediately b. Stabilize his spine in the water, then move c. Ask bystanders for more information d. None of the above 7. If you needed to perform CPR on the patient in question # 6, which statement below would be true: a. You may perform CPR while the patient is still in the water b. You must have the patient on a solid surface before starting compressions c.

CPR is just as effective in the water as anywhere else d. None of the above 8. Two intersecting lines that meet at the umbilicus form the: a.

Level of diaphragm b. Abdominal quadrants c. Left and right flank d. Pelvic girdle 9. The feeling of trouble breathing is more accurately called: a. Hyperpnea 10. At a construction site on the hottest day in August your patient is complaining of dizziness, headache and nausea.

Her skin is cold and clammy, pulse slightly elevated. You suspect: a. Heat cramps b. Heat stroke c. Heat exhaustion d. Your treatment for the patient in question # 10 should include: a.

Cool fluids by mouth b. Supportive care d. All of the above 12. A patient with a spinal injury is often found positioned: a. Lateral recumbent c.

Supine with arms extended above head d. None of the above 13. Your patient had been watching television when he attempted to rise from his chair. He states that he felt dizzy and apparently passed out. You suspect: a. Orthostatic hypotension c. Intoxication 14.

A patient from an MVA states that she was not wearing a seat belt and was thrown against the steering wheel. You observe a cap refill of 3 seconds, deteriorating LOC, and progressive cyanosis. She has most likely suffered from: a. Pericardial tamponade b. Traumatic asphyxia c.

Lacerated liver d. Ruptured pancreas 15. In a tension pneumothorax the air is trapped in the: a.

Pericardial space b. Pleural space c. Subarachnoid space d. None of the above 16. When moving a patient while performing CPR you should: a.

Stop CPR for as long as needed to move them b. Stop CPR for as short a time as possible c.

Never stop CPR d. None of the above 17.

Your adult patient has charred burns to his chest and the total surface of one arm. The approximate percentage of body surface burned is: a. The patient in question # 17 is on CUPS: a. The ribs are held in place by: a. Article 30 is a section of the: a.

Good Samaritan Law b. Public Health Law c. Public Good Health Law d. For which of the following fractures would a pillow be an appropriate splinting device: a. Radius/ulna d. You have arrived at the scene of an MVA to find the car on its side. You should first: a.

Move your patients b. Treat your patients in the car c. Attempt to “rock” the car down onto its tires d. Stabilize the car in place 23. Which of the following is good for stabilizing a possible closed fracture of the pelvis: a. Sling & swathe b. Air splint c.

SAM splint d. A subdural hematoma is generally caused by hemorrhage: a. None of the above 25.

A patient with possible spinal injuries responds to pain. Which statement is true: a. This patient cannot have spinal injuries if they can feel pain. This patient may still have spinal injuries.

Patients do not respond to pain. None of the above 26. A mentally disturbed person can be treated under the general concept of consent: a. We can’t treat them without a court order. Which chamber of the heart has the largest mass: a. Right atrium b.

Right ventricle c. Left atrium d.

Left ventricle 28. Your first course of treatment for a burn patient is: a. Complete immobilization b. Stop the burning process c. Apply ointment 29.

The body first attempts to warm itself by: a. Shunting blood to extremities b. Shutting down c. None of the above 30. Which of the following are acceptable surfaces on which to defibrillate a patient: a. Metal floor b. Scoop stretcher c.

Standing water d. Backboard 31.

The average adult male has approximately pints of blood: a. The minimum acceptable ventilation volume during adult CPR is: a. You arrive at the scene of a hunting accident to find a person with protruding bowel loops.

Peritoneum c. Evisceration d. Impalement 34.

A patient who is totally unresponsive is on the Glasgow Coma Scale: a. The chest injury characterized by paradoxical movement is: a.

Cardiac tamponade b. Flail chest c. Hemothorax d.

Rib fracture 36. When rescue breathing for a patient with a stoma you should: a. Ventilate as normal b. Use a mask-to-stoma technique c. Cover the stoma and use a mask-to-mouth seal d. It does not matter how we do it 37. Tachypnea is the medical term for: a.

Difficulty breathing b. Inability to speak c. Noisy breathing d. Rapid breathing 38. Which of the following is a likely finding in a patient with CHF: a. Adequate perfusion b. Pulmonary edema c.

Clear lung sounds d. All of the above 39. Following an MVA your adult patient has vitals as follows: pulse 130 and irregular; BP 96/50; respirations 26 and shallow. You should: a. Ventilate with a BVM b. Apply MAST, but do not inflate yet c. Insert an OPA d.

All of the above 40. A 50-year-old male patient is complaining of chest pain that started while he was shoveling snow and has lasted for more than 20 minutes. You suspect: a.

When performing two rescuer CPR, which statement below is true: a. Both rescuers should be performing sets of 4 compressions/2 ventilations. When switching between rescuers doing compressions, the new compressor should confirm no pulse before starting compressions.

When switching between rescuers doing compressions, the new ventilator should check pulse while the new compressor gets into position. None of the above 42. You might expect to see an altered LOC in patients with which of the following conditions: a.

Intoxication c. Hyperglycemia d. All of the above 43. To check for a pulse on an unresponsive adult you should palpate the pulse site: a. What kind of hemorrhage presents as dark red and flowing: a. None of the above 45.

The term used to describe a person or substance exposed to ionizing radiation is: a. Contamination b. Irradiated c. Radioactive 46. When you come upon the site of an MVA the first thing you should do is: a. Call for more ambulances b.

Attempt to assess your patients c. Perform triage d. A scene survey 47. The presence of a femoral pulse suggests a minimum systolic BP of: a. A patient presents with a glass fragment in his left cheek. It is threatening his airway.

You should: a. Stabilize it in place; we don’t remove impaled objects. Leave it alone, and don’t touch it. Pull it back out the way it entered.

Push it through and out continuing in the direction of entry. A patient from a fall presents as follows: pulse 110 and regular; respirations 26 and labored; BP 90/50; skin cold and clammy; altered LOC; cap refill of 3 seconds. This patient has: a. Compensated shock b. Decompensated shock d. The type of respirations that may be observed in a diabetic coma patient are called “air hunger” or: a. Cheyne-Stokes b.

Kussmaul’s c. None of the above 51.

At the scene of a gas leak, you should park your ambulance: a. At least 150 feet away, upwind b. Wherever the police tell you d. It doesn’t matter 52. The covering of the lungs is called: a. Peritoneum b.

Periosteum d. Pericardium 53. Following a bar fight, you have taken three sets of vitals on your patient. At 2330 vitals were: pulse 80/regular; respirations 20/regular; BP 140/78.

The vitals at 2335 were: pulse 102/regular; respirations 24/regular; BP 120/88. Your latest set at 2340 were: pulse 130/regular; respirations 28/labored; BP 100/92. You suspect: a. Traumatic asphyxia c.

Traumatic emphysema d. Pericardial tamponade 54. Following a side-impact MVA your patient (the driver) presents with: pulse 120/irregular, respirations 28/shallow, BP 96/54. She appears to have bilateral closed femur fractures. You suspect this patient is suffering shock due to: a. Emotional stress b. Plasma loss from the femoral fractures c.

Massive internal hemorrhage from a closed pelvic fracture d. None of the above 55. A cerebrovascular accident may be caused by: a. An aneurysm b. An embolism c.

Both a & b d. Neither a nor b 56. The heart muscle (myocardium) receives its oxygen supply via the: a. Pulmonary arteries b. Coronary arteries c. Pulmonary veins d.

Superior vena cava 57. You have been called to the home of an elderly male patient. He was found at the bottom of his cellar steps by his neighbor. He is complaining of pain in his left knee and his left leg appears to be medially rotated. You suspect: a. Anterior hip dislocation b. Posterior hip dislocation c.

Hip fracture d. Femur fracture 58. Bone ends are held in place by: a. A victim of severe carbon monoxide poisoning will exhibit a pulse oximetry reading of: a. All of the following are normal in a newborn infant except: a. Pulse of 156 b.

Limpness of the arms c. Creamy, white film on the skin d. Tiny white spots on the nose and chin 61. Of the following, the oxygen delivery device of choice for a victim of smoke inhalation: a. Nasal cannula b.

Venturi Mask c. BVM w/O2 & reservoir d. None of the above 62. A non-rebreather will deliver a minimum oxygen concentration of: a. The injury which presents with a white, waxy appearance is: a.

Heat stroke b. Chilblains 64. Maintaining body temperature is an important part of your treatment for a burn patient because: a. Burns feel hot, so the surrounding air feels cold b. Loss of plasma and temperature regulation through damaged skin c. People don’t like to be cold d.

All of the above 65. The depth of compressions in infant CPR is: a. 1/2 - 1 inch b. 1 - 1 1/2 inches c.

1 1/2 - 2 inches d. None of the above 66. While delivering a baby in the rig, you notice that the umbilical cord seems to be wrapped tightly around the infant’s neck. You are unsuccessful in slipping it off. You should: a. Call Medical Control for advice b.

Tell the mother there is a problem c. Clamp and cut d. Deliver the baby anyway 67. While transporting a pregnant woman in her third trimester you should position her: a. Position of comfort c. Left lateral recumbent d.

Right lateral recumbent 68. The term that means “close to a point of reference” is: a. Alcohol intoxication is most easily confused with which condition: a. Heart attack c. Hypoglycemia d.

A baby born to a diabetic mother is likely to be: a. A patient presents with blistering burns to his face, arms and chest following an industrial accident. This patient is a on CUPS: a. During your patient assessment you notice clear fluid draining from the patient’s ears. None of the above 73. Good Samaritan Laws: a. Restricts attorney’s fees b.

Provide malpractice insurance for volunteers c. Minimize the fear of lawsuits d. None of the above 74. A known diabetic presents as follows: warm, dry skin, altered LOC, respirations of 26 and deep. There is a noticeable sweet odor on his breath. You will treat him under which protocol: a. Heat/cold emergencies b.

Adult major trauma c. Non-traumatic altered LOC 75. The ratio of compressions to ventilations for one-rescuer adult CPR is: a. You are rescue breathing for a 5 year old child. You should give one breath every seconds: a.

None of the above 77. Your patient from an MVA has initial vitals as follows: pulse 104 and regular, respirations 26 and shallow, BP 110/74. En route to the hospital his vitals are: pulse 74 and regular, respirations 24 and shallow, BP 160/108. You suspect: a. Pericardial tamponade b. Head injury c.

Traumatic asphyxia d. None of the above 78.

The loss of a clear fluid through damaged skin may lead to hypovolemic shock in a burn patient. What is this fluid: a. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) b. In New York State, your EMT certification is valid for years: a. To protect your unresponsive patients you should: a. Always assume spinal injuries b.

Never assume spinal injuries c. Sometimes assume spinal injuries d. Not enough information to give an answer. Mediastinal shift will be seen in which condition: a.

Simple pneumothorax b. Tension pneumothorax c. Spontaneous pneumothorax d. Pericardial tamponade 82. “Having met the requirements of an agency” best defines: a. Certification c.

Status quo d. None of the above 83.

Of the following, the classification of fracture most commonly seen in small children: a. Transverse b. Greenstick 84. You have responded to a motorcycle accident. Your patient appears to have a closed femur fracture.

You should immobilize the leg with: a. Air splint b. Vacuum splint c. Traction splint 85. You have been called to a warehouse where a man has been pinned between a truck and the loading dock. He has bloodshot, protruding eyes, severe cyanosis of the head, neck and shoulders. You suspect: a.

Traumatic emphysema b. Traumatic asphyxia c. Tension pneumothorax d. Subcutaneous emphysema 86.

The larger of the two bones in the lower leg is: a. A diver has presented with severe chest pain and dyspnea following an airplane flight from South Carolina. He has most likely suffered: a. Decompression sickness b. Air embolism c. Which of the following would be part of your treatment for the patient in question # 87: a. High-flow oxygen b.

Ground transport c. Cardiac monitor d. All of the above 89. A foundry worker presents with an altered LOC and hot dry skin.

You suspect: a. Heat cramps b. Heat exhaustion c. Heat stroke d. Your patient is a 14 year old female in severe respiratory distress, with no parents present. You may treat her under: a.

Implied consent b. Actual consent c. Minor’s consent d.

Any of the above 91. Which of the following are not signs of acute abdomen: a. Still patient with knees drawn up b. Tenderness c.

Rigid abdomen d. None of the above 92. You have sealed a sucking chest wound with an occlusive dressing. You notice that the patient’s trachea seems to be moving away from the side of injury and that their breathing has become extremely labored.

You should: a. Tell your driver to speed up b. Release the sealed dressing c. Do nothing; monitor the patient d.

None of the above 93. A patient from an MVA presents as follows: pulse 96 and regular; respirations 32 and shallow; BP 120/76.

Upon inspiration you notice that one side of the chest wall expands and the other side sinks in. This patient has: a. Acute abdomen b. Spontaneous pneumothorax c. Ruptured spleen d. Flail chest 94.

A patient presents with: pulse 120 and regular; respirations 26 and shallow; BP 100/60. Upon expiration you observe pink, frothy sputum.

Of the following choices, this patient most likely has: a. Tension pneumothorax b. Hemothorax c. Simple pneumothorax d. Hemopneumothorax 95. All of the following are steps you should take for a possible assault victim except: a. Place clothing in paper bags b.

Provide supportive care c. Use your med radio to report to the hospital d. Be non-judgmental 96. Which of the following organs are solid: a. All of the above 97.

Which of the following is not part of the digestive system: a. You will find subcutaneous emphysema in which primary assessment step: a. The injury commonly referred to as a “paper bag” injury has the medical name: a. Traumatic asphyxia b.

Traumatic emphysema c. Subcutaneous emphysema d. Asphyxia 100.

Which of the following is a sign of a spinal injury: a. Dysconjugate gaze b. Doll’s eye c. Cushing’s Reflex 101.

Hemoptysis often looks like: a. Tea leaves b. Coffee grounds d. It doesn’t look like anything, it’s a symptom 102. When the diaphragm moves downward the air pressure in the thoracic cavity is: a. Remains the same 103.

The movement of the trachea away from the affected side following a chest injury signals: a. Pericardial tamponade b. Cushing’s Reflex c.

Mediastinal shift d. None of the above 104.

The distinguishing sign for an epidural hematoma is: a. Lucid interval b. Meningitis c. Altered LOC d. Venous hemorrhage 105.

The diabetic emergency with a gradual onset is: a. Hyperglycemia b. Insulin trauma c. Hypoglycemia d.

Insulin coma 106. Your treatment for a seizure patient includes: a. Protect the patient, high-flow oxygen b. Bite block, high-flow oxygen c. Restrain the patient, high-flow oxygen d.

None of the above 107. You arrive at the scene of a toddler who has been poisoned. You notice burns around his mouth. You would: a. Induce vomiting b.

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Give activated charcoal c. Call Med Control d. Call Poison Control 108. Your patient presents as follows: extremity edema; rales; JVD; cyanosis; cap refill 4 seconds. He is coughing pink, frothy sputum. You suspect: a.

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None of the above 109. Which of the following are s/s of an asthma attack: a. Wheezing & anxiety b. Rapid pulse c. Labored exhalations d. All of the above 110.

A primary danger with “huffing” or using inhaled solvents is: a. Cardiac arrest b. None of the above copyright 1997,1998,1999,2000 Cynthia W.